AIIMS November 2009 MDS/Dental Solved Question Paper

The Questions from AIIMS November 2009 MDS/Dental Entrance, All the Best for your entrance exams. Follow the question papers and do well in Entrances. As we have seen that previous questions are repeated a lot of times it is sensible to be up to date with the questions and practice them more than once.

For more previous AIIMS papers:

1. AIIMS 2012 MAY Questions Paper: AIIMS MAY 2012
2. AIIMS 2012 NOV Question Paper: AIIMS NOV 2012
3. AIIMS 2011 MAY Question Paper: AIIMS MAY 2011
4. AIIMS 2010 NOV Question Paper: AIIMS NOV 2010
5. AIIMS 2010 May Question Paper: AIIMS May 2012

1. Infarction of anterior inferior cerebellar artery may cause damage to ?

1. Vestibular nuclei
2. Pyramidal tract
3. Corticospinal tract
4. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve

Ans: 1

2. Chief cells are located in gastric gland in the region ?

1. Fundus
2. Isthumus
3. Neck
4. Equally spread

Ans: 1

3. GALT (Gut associated Lymphoid tissue) is primarily located in ?

1. Submucosa
2. Muscularis mucosa
3. Serosa
4. Lamina propria

Ans: 4

4. Disinfection can be done by all except ?

1. 5% chlorhexidine
2. 2-3% cetremide
3. 100% alcohol
4. Izole

Ans: 3

5. Chemotactic Cytokine is ?

1. IL-1
2. IL-6
3. IL-8
4. TNF

Ans: 3

6. Cytokine found in Periapical region is ?

1. IL-1
2. IL-6
3. IL-8
4. TNF

Ans: 1 or 2

7. Lepromin test is used to confirm ?

1. Diagnosis
2. Prognosis
3. Treatment
4. Epidemiological studies

Ans: 2

8. Which stage of Plasmodium Vivax is infectious to Mosquito ?

1. Gametocyte
2. Trophozytes
3. Merozoite
4. Sporozoite

Ans: 1

9. Mechanism of Phase contrast microscope is ?

1. Light scatter
2. Refraction of Light
3. Difference in refractive index of objects
4. Difference in reflective index of objects

Ans: 3

10. A Dental surgeon has recovered from Hepatitis B by 3 months rest. His laboratory findings are normal but he is not allowed to attend to patients as per medical board as he is ?

1. Healthy carrier
2. Active Carrier
3. Convalescent carrier
4. Paradoxical carrier

Ans: 3

11. In Pseudomonas aeraginosa all are true except ?

1. Strict Aerobes
2. Children with cystic fibrosis commonly affected
3. Infection mostly due to endogenous source
4. Can grow in disinfectants in hospital

Ans: 3

12. About N.gonorrhoeae, all are true except ?

1. Most common cause of male urethritis
2. Present mainly in mixed infections
3. All strains are susceptible to Pencillins
4. Found only in human beings

Ans: 3

13. True about meningococcal vaccine is ?

1. Capsule polysaccharide act as a virulent factor for the production of group specific antibody

Ans: 1

14. All are true about Vidal test except ?

1. Baseline titre may vary in various endemic areas
2. Titre antibodies last longer hence not dictative of recent infection
3. Diagnostic and cannot differentiate between subtypes
4. High titre value in a single Widal test is not confimative

Ans: 2

15. About bacteroids. All are true except ?

1. Susceptible to many antibiotics
2. Present mainly in mixed infections
3. Most common species in B.fragilis
4. Bile resistant anerobes

Ans: 1

16. Which is associated with defect in DNA repair ?

1. Xeroderma pigmentosum
2. Icthyosis
3. Albinism
4. Sickle cell anemia

Ans: 1

17. Which of the following syndrome is related to HOX gene ?

1. Polysyndactyly
2. Holoprosencephaly
3. Mayer Rokit ansky syndrome
4. Gorlin syndrome

Ans: 1

18. Anti Pseudomonal Cephalosporin is ?

1. Cefaperazone
2. Cefadroxil
3. Cefuroxime
4. Cefoxitin

Ans: 1

19. Antidote of Heparin is ?

1. Protamine sulphate
2. Phylloquinone
3. Ticlopidine
4. Warfarin

Ans: 1

20. Silidenafil is inhibitor of ?

1. cAMP
2. cGMP
3. PDE-5
4. PGI2

Ans: 3

21. True about pencillin G ?

1. It is excreted by Kidney
2. Acid resistant
3. Broad Spectrum antibiotic
4. Resistance to Pencillinase

Ans: 1

22. Obesity is associated with all except ?

1. Growth hormone deficiency
2. Diabetes Mellitus
3. Thyroid hormone deficiency
4. Oestrogen deficiency

Ans: 4

23. A 9 year girl old child shows profuse bleeding after tonsilectomy, blood shows normal platelet count, normal PT but increased APTT. Condition can be ?

1. Von Willebrands disease
2. Haemophilia A
3. Haemophilia B
4. Factor V deficiency

Ans: 1

24. Increased intracranial pressure does not cause ?

1. Headache
2. Vomiting
3. Somnolence
4. Muscle Twitching

Ans: 4

25. Cooley’s Anemia is commonly known as ?

1. Beta Thalassemia Major
2. Beta Thalassemia Minor
3. Beta Thalassemia Intermedia
4. Alpha Thalassemia

Ans: 1

26. Increase in height of the mandible and appearance of interdental spaces in an elderly pt is associated with ?

1. Hyperpituitarism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hypopituitarism
4. Hyperpituitarism

Ans: 1

27. Transformation into Osteosarcoma is seen with ?

1. Pagets disease and polystotic fibrous dysplasia
2. Pagets disease and Osteopetrosis
3. Cherubism and polystotic fibrous dysplasia
4. Cherubism and Pagets disease

Ans: 1

28. Burning tongue might be associated with ?

1. Ranula
2. Pernicious anemia
3. Daibetes mellitus
4. Local irritation

Ans: 1

29. Dental Plaque adhereas to tooth surface by ?

1. Bacteria
2. Epithelial cells
3. Dextran
4. Sucrose

Ans: 3

30. 9 yr old child show extra cusp on lingual side of anterior maxillary tooth. Which of the following conditions may not be associated ?

1. Mohr syndorme
2. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome
3. Struge Weber syndrome
4. Proteus Syndrome

Ans: 4

31. Among Hepatitis, syphilitic glossitis, plummer vinson syndrome, Mikulicz’s syndrome. Squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to occurs in ?

1. Syphilitic glossitis and plummer vinsons syndrome
2. Syphilitic glossitis and Mukilicz disease
3. Plummer vinsons disease and Hepatitis A
4. Hepatitis A and Mikuliczs disease

Ans: 1

32. Oral and Dermal symptoms are most commonly seen in which leukaemia ?

1. Monocytic
2. Myelocytic
3. Lymphocytic
4. Aleukaemia

Ans: 1

33. Bilateral mandibular enlargement is seen in which of the following conditions ?

1. Cherubism
2. Osteoma
3. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
4. Ameloblastoma

Ans: 1

34. Generalized hypercementosis is seen in ?

1. Hypophosphatasia
2. Pagets disease
3. Fibrous dysplasia
4. Cherubism

Ans: 2

35. Which of the following is the most preferred route of drug administration in the management of chronic pain ?

1. Intrathecal
2. Oral
3. Subdermal
4. Intravenous

Ans: 2

36. Maximum amount of phosphate is seen in ?

1. Enamel
2. Bone
3. Dentin
4. Cemuntum

Ans: 1

37. If the rate of Loading is decreased the mechanical properties of material ?

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
4. Becomes unpredictable

Ans: 2

38. Which cement is most kind to pulp ?

1. Silicate
2. Zn Polycarboxylate
3. Zn Phosphate
4. GIC

Ans: 2

39. Nickel is added to wrought base metal alloys

1. Strengthener
2. Hardner
3. Whitens alloys
4. Scavenger

Ans: 1

40. Dustless alginate is produced by ?

1. Reducing the Diatemous earth
2. Adding heavy metals
3. Coating with dihydric alcohol
4. Altering the matrix

Ans: 3

41. Which of the following does not occur in reaction between ZnO and Eugenol ?

1. Zinc oxide hydrolysis to hydride
2. Autocatalytic reaction
3. Water is the byproduct of reaction
4. Dehydrated ZnO reacts with dehydrated eugenol

Ans: 4

42. Which of the following does not occur in High copper amalgam ?

1. Electromechanical corrosion
2. Chemical corrosion
3. Penetrating corrosion
4. Corrosion does not occur at all

Ans: 3

43. Proximal caries in a 6 year old child can be best detected by ?

1. Bitewing paralleling technique
2. Bitewing bisecting angle technique
3. Bitewing by RVG
4. OPG

Ans: 3

44. Patients cross infection with bite block of OPG machine is prevented by ?

1. Cover the machine with autoclaved cloth after each use
2. Using disposable Bite blocks
3. Clean with 100% alcohol
4. Cover with impervious barrier

Ans: 2

45. Fibroblasts in pulp produce which type of collagen ?

1. Type I
2. Type II and III
3. Type I and III
4. Type II and I

Ans: 3

46. Period of Splinting for fracture in cervical 1/3rd of root fracture of tooth is ?

1. 14 days
2. 4 weeks
3. 40 days
4. 4 months

Ans: 4

47. Injury that can cause protective layer damage is ?

1. Intrusion
2. Extrusion
3. Avulsion
4. Lateral Luxation

Ans: 1

48. Dental caries is associated with ?

1. S. mitis
2. S. Salivarius
3. S. rattus
4. Staphylococcus

Ans: 2

49. Which do the following tissue occupies the greatest volume of the tooth ?

1. Enamel
2. Dentin
3. Pulp
4. Cementum

Ans: 2

50. With slowly advancing enamel caries and rapid involvement of dentin, the type of dentin formed is ?

1. Secondary
2. Teritiary
3. Reperative
4. Sclerotic

Ans: 4

51. During the formation of reparative dentin the odontoblasts which are lost is differentiated from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in ?

1. 1 week
2. 15 days
3. 4-6 weeks
4. 1 month

Ans: 2

52. Minimum demineralization of enamel by caries to be evident on a radiograph is ?

1. 100 Microns
2. 200 Microns
3. 400 Microns
4. 500 Microns

Ans: 4

53. Distance of the blade from the shank to have anti rotational stability of the instrument is ?

1. 2 mm
2. 3 mm
3. 4 mm
4. 5 mm

Ans: 1

54. Percentage of Phosphoric acid where Dicalcium phosphate monohydrate is formed that cannot be rinsed off ?

1. 25%
2. 37%
3. 50%
4. 80%

Ans: 1

55. Material that acts as pulpal medicament and thermal insulator is ?

1. Solution liner
2. Suspension liner
3. Cement liner
4. Cement base

Ans: 3

56. Nd: YAG laser has a wavelength of ?

1. 10.6 microns
2. 1.06 microns
3. 0.6 microns
4. 110.6 microns

Ans: 2

57. Zone of carious dentin with demineralization of intertubular dentin and formation of fine crystals in tubule lumen ?

1. Subtransparent dentin
2. Transparent dentin
3. Affected dentin
4. Normal dentin

Ans: 1

58. Acid dissolution of Enamel rods is ?

1. More in head than in tail
2. More in tail than in head
3. Uniform all over
4. More in periphery

Ans: 1

59. Patient with complete denture complains of pain while swallowing and their is overextension in the distolingual aspect. The muscle involved is ?

1. Superior constrictor
2. Palatopharyngeous
3. Palatoglossus
4. Stylopharyngeous

Ans: 1

60. For a loose CD, religning and rebasing can be done in which of the following ocnditions ?

1. Excessive alveolar bone loss
2. When centric relation and centric occlusion do not coincide
3. The patient is poor and cannot afford a new denture
4. More than 2mm loss of alveolar bone height

Ans: 3

61. A patient with poor neuromuscular control presents with occlusal prematurities. Occlusion can be corrected by ?

1. Direct correction in patients mouth
2. No need to establish correct occlusion in such cases
3. Patient is asked to bite on carborundum paste
4. Take new interocclusal record and correct on articulator

Ans: 4

62. New pair of complete dentures show edge to edge relation in centric occlusion. correction can be done by grinding ?

1. Cuspal inclinations of maxillary teeth are bucally placed and Mandibular teeth are lingually placed

Ans: 1

63. If the maxillary teeth are placed more anteriorly in denture. The sound effected is ?

1. Ch
2. S
3. V
4. F

Ans: 2

64. The most frequent fracture of root tips in extraction of primary molar is ?

1. Ankylosis of tooth
2. Improper use of cowhorn forceps
3. Presence of supernumerary PM
4. Resorption between Apex and Bifurcation

Ans: 4

65. Absorption of fluorides in children is mostly through ?

1. Gingiva
2. Lungs
3. Oral cavity
4. Intestine

Ans: 4

66. In behaviour management which is the most common route of premedication ?

1. Oral
2. Intramuscular
3. Subdermal
4. Intravenous

Ans: 1

67. The type of profile seen in patient suffering with chronic mouth breathing ?

1. Convex profile, long face
2. Concave profile, long face
3. Convex profile short face
4. Concave profile short face

Ans: 1

68. Na2CO3 when give whit LA has the following effect ?

1. Increases rapidity of action
2. Helps intraneural spread of LA
3. Decreases Onset and quality of block
4. Increases rate of drug absorption from site

Ans: 1

69. Haemophilia A is caused by gene encoding ?

1. Factor VIII
2. Factor IX
3. Factor V
4. Factor XIII

Ans: 1

70. Intravertebral injection does not spread to ?

1. Epidural space
2. Inf and Sup paravertebral spaces vertebular penetration
3. Intercoastal space
4. Subarachnoid

Ans: 4

71. Cause of death during the 2nd Peak in a patient with severe injuries is ?

1. Spinal injury
2. Epidural and subdural haemorrhage
3. Aortic arch rupture
4. Sepsis

Ans: 2

72. Treatment of solitary Langerhans histocytoma of mandible is by ?

1. Curettage
2. Radiotherapy
3. Chemotherapy
4. No treatment

Ans: 1

73. Which film is recommended for caries detection in children ?

1. D
2. E
3. B
4. F

Ans: 4

74. Propofol. all are true except ?

1. Has a rapid recovery rate
2. USed for induction of anesthesia
3. Causes vomiting after use
4. Causes sedation

Ans: 3

75. A patient with history of fall after hypoglycaemic episode presents with pain in bilateral preauricular region and deviation of the mandible to the right side on mouth opening probable diagnosis is ?

1. # of right condyle
2. # of left condyle
3. Dislocation of the left condyle
4. Dislocation of the right condyle

Ans: 1

76. Open reduction and fixation of fracture of mandibular condyle is indicated when ?

1. Shortening of ramal height more than 5 mm
2. Superior 5 mm condyle fracture
3. Greenstick fracture in children
4. Condylar fracture which is not dislocated

Ans: 1

77. Infection of masticatory space is usually associated with ?

1. Tonsillar abscess
2. Mandibular molar
3. Lateral pharyngeal space
4. Parotid space infection

Ans: 2

78. What is the best treatment for # of Angle of mandible based on champys principle of lines of tension and compression ?

1. One AO plates
2. Compression plating
3. Reconstruction plates
4. External pin fixation

Ans: 1

79. Which of the following inducing agents has analgesic property ?

1. Nitrous Oxide
2. Halothane
3. Enflurane
4. Sevoflurane

Ans: 1

80. First local anaesthesia to be used clinically was ?

1. Cocaine
2. Bupivacaine
3. Procaine
4. Lignocaine

Ans: 1

81. Which combination forms day care anaesthesia ?

1. Fentanyl, propofol, isoflurane
2. Pethidine, propofol, Isoflurane
3. Thiopental, pethidine, halothane
4. Thipentane, isoflurane, fentanyl

Ans: 1

82. Mandibular fracture managed by adapting mini plates is a type of ?

1. Load bearing osteosynthesis
2. Load sharing osteosynthesis
3. Non-rigid osteosynthesis
4. Rigid osteosynthesis

Ans: 2

83. Most stable orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite correction is ?

1. Sagittal split osteotomy
2. Le Fort I
3. Inverted L Osteotomy
4. Intraoral vertical subsigmoidal osteotomy

Ans: 2

84. The incision used for treatment of traumatic telecanthus is ?

1. Bicoronal incision
2. Upper Blepharoplasty
3. Infraorbital incision

Ans: 1

85. In a patient with fresh blowout # of the orbit, best immediate management is ?

1. Wait and watch
2. Antral pack
3. Titanium mesh
4. Glass bead mesh

Ans: 1

86. Caries status in child is most likely suggested by ?

1. DMFT and past caries index
2. Salivary flow and composition
3. Frequency of sugar intake
4. fluoride concentration in the Area

Ans: 1

87. All of the following are contraindications of DPT vaccine except ?

1. Progressive neurological disease
2. Severe convulsions
3. Immunocompromised state
4. Severe reaction on first dose or subsequent dose

Ans: 3